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Prediction: Trump will argue that his NY conviction must be overturned because the court admitted evidence of conversations he had with his staff while President in order to prove knowledge and intent. He will argue those conversations were “official acts.” Judge Merchan and higher NY courts …./1
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/2 ….will reject the argument based on finding that those conversations were not official acts and that including it was harmless error. Trump will appeal from NY’s highest court to SCOTUS.
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I’m really quite confused on the exclusionary rule re: conversations as evidence establishing official acts/presumptively immune/unofficial acts vs conversations as official acts.
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My question is: If the state court rules that the charged conduct was an unofficial act based only on the public record (e.g. evidence before he took office), does the exclusionary rule still apply re: the conversations etc after he took office? What immunity remains?
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Not only can’t official acts be the basis for a charge, they can’t be offered as EVIDENCE about another act. Say Trump asks DoJ to shoot an actor he hates. They say no. He leaves office and hires a private hit man to kill the actor. The official act of asking DoJ can’t be introduced as evidence.
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Okay so just the speaking in and of itself is an “official act”. That is what I think I have not been wrapping my head around.
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Speaking to DoJ to give instructions on criminal investigations or threatening to fire: definitely a core official act. Talking to a staffer: with this court, I suspect they will find a way to make it an official act.
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I was understanding it as if the reimbursements/cover up, etc. met the unofficial conduct based on public record evidence than immunity doesn’t attach and the exclusionary rule wdnt apply to talking to a staffer about it. But if the president talking to a staffer is an official act, then…
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It’s probably unofficial conduct but it’s before the presidency so it doesn’t matter. The problem is the staff communications during the presidency.
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Is there any chance it *is* official conduct that should have “properly” been excluded according to the “legitimate” ruling in the immunity decision, but that the inclusion was harmless error, so the conviction remains?
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Or is including something that should have been excluded automatically fatal to an conviction?