the Supreme Court’s jurisprudence on corruption is basically at a point where the only thing that counts as a bribe is someone handing a public official a giant bag of money with a dollar sign on it while saying “this is a bribe” out loud
Obviously, the person receiving the bag of money with a dollar sign on it would have to say "I am accepting this corruptly, understanding that it is a bribe which will influence my official decisionmaking" or how can we possibly be sure there was the necessary mens rea?
